Science Forums 2

[DivineNathicana]

Einstein said that instantaneous travel was impossible. Quantum physicists are saying that it is - for quantum particles. But I have a different question: Can we not say that macroscopic objects are ALREADY undergoing instantaneous travel? (I want to make it clear that I am NOT bashing either of the aforementioned.)

My reasoning is as follows: When an object (any object) moves (at all in general), it has to INSTANTANEOSLY move to SOMEWHERE: say from consecutive points A to B. If you push a ball down a hill, sure it doesn't go from the top of the hill to the bottom of the hill instantaneously. However, it must go SOMEWHERE instantaneously, be it a Planck's length distance, but still somewhere.

It should not take any time to get there because think about it: If it takes time to get there, that means that during the duration of this time, it was at a point BETWEEN A and B, to which then it must have traveled instantaneously and so on... There is a Planck's length limit to the distance an object can travel. Thus if it travels h-bar, it simply cannot be cought "in-between" hypothetical points A and B because there really is no "in-between", making its motion instantaneous.

- Alisa