Science Forums 2

[sanctus]

Originally Posted by ronthepon

Assuming that one of the dice has indeed landed as a six, we are free to label the cups in whatever order we want.

So the probability of the 6 cup getting anything from A to F will probably be equal.

I don't agree, just imagine in the first cup there is no 6 but you know there is one hence the probability increases. The easiest way to see this is by supposing that you do the experiment and the first 5 cups have something different from 6, hence the last cup has a probability of 1 having a six.