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Old 02-11-2009   #4 (permalink)
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Re: A Generalization of Fermat’s Last Theorem

That's fascinating. I wonder if such a generalization has been tried before.

Quote:
Originally Posted by CraigD View Post
Is there any m such that and m<n? Fermat’s Last Theorem states that there is not for m=2. Is there some m for which a “generalized FLT” is false?
I checked m=3, n=4 a_1, a_2, a_3 = {1-100} and I'm currently running through m=4, n=5, a_1... a_4 = {1-100} with nothing found so far.

Very exciting

~modest


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