How could the velovity to be considered in the Lorentz Formula be v = v1 = v2-w if by definition that v must be the velocity of the moving isolated charge?
In Case 1 v = 0 and in Case 2 v = w.
Quote:
|
and you conclusion that is different for the 2 cases is incorrect.
|
Well,then as in Case 1 the Magnetic Field and Force is zero the same would apply to Case 2 and further we would conclude that a line of current actually would never affect magnetically a near isolated charge. Absurd.
Quote:
|
I think you confusion arises, martillo, in a faulty understanding of classical electromagnetism.
|
I think you must learn about
real Magnetic Fields and Forces, I mean how the Magnetic Field and Force work in
reallity.
May be you would like to perform the experiment to se what really happens...
I don't need to do this.
Quote:
I noticed another troubling sentence in your page (bolding mine):
Relativity applies Lorentz Transform with length and charge contraction in the beam of electrons.
Although you may not intend to apply otherwise, relativity describes mass dilation, and length contraction, but not any change in charge. For example, regardless of its velocity relative to an observer, the charge of an electron remains constant.
|
You are right on this. I have corrected the page.
