Science Forums 2

[syndicated]

I probably should have been clearer in what I said.
It was stated that for an object travelling at light speed the distance between any 2 points in 0, due to this length contraction theory. This would also suggest that since distance is 0, the time it takes to travel X distance at light speed would also be 0, Yes?
How can that be possible? EVERYTHING takes time. Otherwise it wouldn't matter, according to planck's time right?
We measure the distances in the universe by light years, the time it takes for light to travel that point to us. Taking time dialation into effect, sure, it takes less time for that light to reach us, but it still takes time and travels that distance, no matter if we're observing it, or the observer is travelling at the speed of light.

Maybe there is something I'm not understanding about this theory, but it just doesn't jive with me.

Ben