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Old 08-21-2008   #1 (permalink)
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A mathematical why of the Big Bang

A mathematical why of the Big Bang
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Let Ui be a set of locations of particles of the universe.
U1xU2x ...... xUix ..... a set of infinite paths
(Cartesian product of sets of urelements).
this set is equal to the void set by the
negation of the axiom of choice.

So there is no more space containing the particles.
The particles collapse on themselves: Big Crunch.
Then Big Bang.

The Big Bang has taken place thus the negation of the axiom
of choice is likely to be considered as a good axiom.
Adib Ben Jebara.
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Old 08-21-2008   #2 (permalink)
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Re: A mathematical why of the Big Bang

About physics and the actual infinite

After Archimedes, Galilei Galileo applied mathematics to physics.
Alexandre Koyré wrote in "D'un monde clos à l'univers infini" that
Galileo threw Earth in the Sky.
For almost all ancient greeks, the Earth and the Sky were not
connected and mathematics applied only to the Sky.
Nowadays, scientists and philosophers think that the actual infinite
cannot be applied in physics.
So now is the time for furthering of Galileo of applying mathematics
to physics.

Establishing a link between the actual infinite and the Big Bang is
furthering the insight of Galileo.

The physical space is infinite because in assuming so, you can
understand why the Big Bang occured. It is because space vanished
as is applied the negation of the mathematical axiom of choice to
describe space.
It is difficult to imagine the contained without the containing, but
it is what happened because space is infinte in the Big Crunch
followed by the Big Bang.
There was always an universe (in a sequence of universes).
It is not clear whether this theory is confirmed or not by others as
I publish in "The bulletin of symbolic logic" but without any feedback
and I am not quoted.
Adib Ben Jebara.
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