particles with spin 3/2

[sanctus]

Just a question, when usually one says a particle has spin 3/2 it actually means that the particle has a certain probability to have spin: -3/2, -1/2, 1/2, 3/2 ? Is this is right?
I think it is right because when you represent a particle with spin s you write wave function with 2s+1 components....

Thanks to anyone who knows!

[maddog]

Originally Posted by sanctus

Just a question, when usually one says a particle has spin 3/2 it actually means that the particle has a certain probability to have spin: -3/2, -1/2, 1/2, 3/2 ? Is this is right?
I think it is right because when you represent a particle with spin s you write wave function with 2s+1 components....

Thanks to anyone who knows!

I remember this from my QM class. Basically, I would agree with you. I vaguely
remember a Clebsch-Gordon fucntion (this is hazy) whose computation give these values.
You typically think of the excited particles as being these. Both Muon, and Baryon.

Maddog