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07-29-2008
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 Thinking |  Is This a Subtle but Completely Legitimate Redefinition, Bewildering Magic or Paradox It's not clear to me why the Lorentz transformation can't be reduced to the Galilean transformation by resetting clocks, rescaling distance measures and fiddling with clock rates according to the recipe on page 11 of A Derivation of the Lorentz Transformation From a Simple Definition of Time and equations (48) to (58). How do you answer this riddle? | |
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