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Originally Posted by breezer
I seem to remeber coming across this somewhere in college (10 years ago) in Calculus. I am a high school math teacher and would like to know if infinity divided by itself equals zero. If so, when and why? Under what circumstances? I do know that it is supposed to equal one.
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Tom is basically right. The representation of infinity divided by infinity is not a number per se. However,
you can take the ratio of two divergent series and if the denominator diverses at a less rate than the
numerator you could have a converging ratio in the limit.
Tom's examples were great.
To test for convergence you use L'Hospital's Rule (I learned in second semester Calculus) by taking the
derivative separately of both numerator and denominator. If the derivatives converge then the ratio
will converge. Neat huh...
Maddog