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Old 05-26-2004   #21 (permalink)
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hey, Lets start some math discussion!

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Originally posted by: Bo That is something which we in high energy physics

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Old 05-27-2004   #22 (permalink)
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hey, Lets start some math discussion!

yups

This is something which is called 'natural unit's. in this way you save a lot of time (just writting E=m instead of E=mc^2) (the fact that you write h=2pi also saves time, because 'almost' always h is devided by 2pi in your formula)
Also a nice convenience of natural units is that all physical quantities are rescaled in such a way that they can be expressed in energy only: e.g. If we devide all our momenta by c (which we easely can doe, it's 1 after all) then the unit of momenta becomes [kg*m/sec --> Kg = Energy]
So this is a big simplification for a lot of formula's (that actually still look horrible...)

Bo
Old 05-28-2004   #23 (permalink)
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hey, Lets start some math discussion!

error


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Old 05-28-2004   #24 (permalink)
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hey, Lets start some math discussion!

error


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Old 05-28-2004   #25 (permalink)
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hey, Lets start some math discussion!

error


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Old 05-28-2004   #26 (permalink)
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hey, Lets start some math discussion!

error!
(last one, phew..)


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Old 05-28-2004   #27 (permalink)
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hey, Lets start some math discussion!

thx, bo...

all i want is to carry out a math discussion....thx


hmm.....how about this, i dont understand how pi is measured. is it simply use a ruler and stuff?
or formulas?

i come up with something to find the value of pi myself...
lim n-> infinity
sin(360/n)*n/2
im assuming a circle= infinite sides polygon.

hmm....but "sin".....how is sin measured (also tan, cos....)? just by some equipments? how do ppl know that
sinx= x-(x^3/3!)+(X^5/5!)-(x^7/7!)......
i fail to understand this..... any simple proof to this??


(ARH~~~ whats happening!!!! plz del all the repeated posts above, thx tormod...)


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Old 05-29-2004   #28 (permalink)
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hey, Lets start some math discussion!

Quote:
hmm.....how about this, i dont understand how pi is measured. is it simply use a ruler and stuff? or formulas?
Well pi is 'defined' as the ratio: circumference/diameter of a circle. So when pi was introduced, using rulers etc was for long the only way to determine the number. But nowadays there exist some more elegent ways, most of them use series. the simplest is probably: pi/4 =1 - 1/3 + 1/5 - 1/7 ...etc. For more see: http://mathworld.wolfram.com/PiFormulas.html
your formula would certainly go to pi (quite fast even; in radians it is proportional to: pi -pi^3/n^2 +O(1/n^4) [this last symbol is use to say: there are more terms but they are of order 1/n^4 or more] well 1/n^2 goes quite fast to 0 for n->inf. So you got pi left. Very nice technique
Quote:
hmm....but "sin".....how is sin measured (also tan, cos....)? just by some equipments? how do ppl know that sinx= x-(x^3/3!)+(X^5/5!)-(x^7/7!)...... i fail to understand this..... any simple proof to this??
well you moght know that the sin and cos are defined as follows: if we take a point on a unitcircle, say (x,y) and we also look at the angle t of a vecor pointing from (0,0) to (x,y) with the x-axis. then sin(t)=y and cos(t)=x and tan(t)=y/x. So the sin and cos are basicly the 2 orthogonal (basicly means: the directions of the 2 projections are perpendicular to each other) projections of a point on the unit circle. Most numerical calculations are done with the series given above. to show where this comes from you need 2 concepts: namely complex numbers and taylors formula. I'll sketch it (BE WARNED! i cant do this without using explicit formula's... i'm sorry..)and you can look the details up on the internet or so (otherwise it would take me to much time and there is no formula editor on this board )
TAYLORS FORMULA: Basicly says that most functions can be written as follows:
f(x) = 1/(0!)*f(0) + (1/1!)*x*{df(x)/dx|x=0} + 1/(2!)*x^2 {(d/dx)*(df(x)/dx)|x=0} +...
where e.g df(x)/dx means: f(x) differentiated to x. the addition |x=0 means that in this differentiated function we have to take x=0. the (n!) means: "n faculty" = n*(n-1)*(n-2)* ... *1. We define 0!=1.
the sine and cosine functions also can be written in a defferent way: sin(x) = (exp(ix)-exp(-ix))/(2i). Here i is the complex number. this has the property that i^2 = -1. applying taylor's formula to the above expression for sin(x) gives the series given above.
ps i still wonder: how did you get the original formula with which you began this post? Bo
Old 05-30-2004   #29 (permalink)
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hey, Lets start some math discussion!

thx bo, it makes sense a little.....hmm...using complex numbers...

well, these are beyond my knowledge... TAYLORS FORMULA confounds me...
does the taylors formula have something to do with the binomial theorm?.....

i'll look for some more information, thx anyway.


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Old 05-30-2004   #30 (permalink)
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hey, Lets start some math discussion!

ehm no there is no direct connection between the binomial theorem and taylors theorem. (except the fact they bove deal with polynomials...)
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