Hmmm ...
An Update...
I see this thread has been going on for a few years. I finally got to read the whole thing. I still don't feel swayed, though I now remember that the Greeks had this same debate a few thousand years ago. So I guess it is still not answered.
So discovered or created (invented by some), eh ?
Let's for the moment use a little logic. I like the someone awhile ago reminded me of the notion of the 0 (ie the Mayan's didn't use the concept, nor did the Romans).
If the notion of the 0 was invented then what about before it was "invented" ? To whom ? If it was invented by one culture and not another that came before did it exist ?
Whereas if the notion of a 0 was discovered by a culture then it would exist beforehand.
I think I can create a paradox using invention/creation of concepts in math whereas I get around this with respect to discovery.
Say Culture A lived before Culture B. A knew of the 0 and B did not. For Culture B does the 0 exist. No. It has not been invented ? Both Culture are
living on the planet at the same time though A is older than B. Does Invention/Creation force this concept into existence before which it did not exist ?
Switch this. Now Culture A does not know of the 0, yet B being a newer Culture does, it invented it. Now it teaches it to Culture A. So A learns to 0. A didn't invent it so does the 0 exist for Culture A ?
Maybe it is just too foreign for me to comprehend.
If I discover a concept, say Newtons Law. Would it be true for this to be considered the opposite as well. Would Newton to have invented and this Law actually didn't exist beforehand ???
Now if I discover Physical Laws, then why would Mathematics be required to be invented.
Conversely, if Mathematics is an invention then so wouldn't be Physics ?
I respect what Pyrotex was trying to show how universal Mathematics is. More what I attempting is by creating a principle of equivalency classes between Physics and Mathematics. To me such a world where everything is "invented" would be a very "magical" world indeed.
I don't even think that I in any way solved this long standing debate by the above logic (or lack thereof).
Now I do contrast this with Computer Languages (or for that manner any spoken or written language). These are definitely created/invented. There is a distinction though here.
The word "bread" in a culture is agreed upon to mean what one does when they bake some foodstuff in some heating utensil to arrive at some edible commodity.
Contrast this in Mathematics where definitions are not by conventional agreement. Even if so notions or processes or theorems thereafter are DEFINITELY NOT by agreement. Otherwise there is no logic. This I feel make Mathematics Not fit the Language model that Cultures dictate in their communication with each other.
Just an update...
maddog