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Tim_Lou: consider this,
a^b/a^b = a^0 =1, so
0^x/0^x = 0/0..
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Look up the definition of that exponential rule and see if it excludes 0 (that is, say a is not equal to 0). For example, one of the math books I have states:
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Quotient Rule for Exponents
a^m / a^n = a^(m - n), a != 0
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another says
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The Quotient Rule
For any nonzero number a and any positive interges m and n,
a^m / a^n = a^(m - n)
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So you can't use the quotient rule of exponents to try to show that 0^0 = 1.
The reason for the restriction a != 0 is obvious (as you showed). Use a = 0 and say m = 5 and n = 3. That appears to give
0^5 / 0^3 = 0^(5 - 3) = 0^2 = 0.
But actually, it doesn't. Note that in the denominator 0^3 = 0, and you can't divide by 0. So when you use a = 0, you actually get undefined.