the answer is 1/n, and it can be obtained as follows:
rewrite your equation as:
(1/2)*(2/3)*(3/4)*...*((n-2)/(n-1))*((n-1)/n)
if you look at the last term, you see that the two (n-1) terms cancel each other. It can be easily seen that this works for all terms, except the first 1 and the last n, so your left with 1/n
Yeah, thanks Bo. I was doing this yesterday (or rather today) around 2 A.M. in the morning, so the thinking was pretty slow, but I got it right! Yay! hahaha
Thanks again,
- Alisa
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"Physics is like sex. Sure, it may give some practical results, but that's not why we do it." - R. Feynman
An arbitrary assignment from my rather odd math teacher required that I do it... And granted, I forgot about it until around 2 A.M. (go me!), when my thinking cap was long-retired. = )
- Alisa
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"Physics is like sex. Sure, it may give some practical results, but that's not why we do it." - R. Feynman