Degree Distasnce

[C1ay]

Originally Posted by Robust

No, Rincewind, the radian = 360-degrees/2pi. It is not determined by linear length (as is the radius).

Originally Posted by tom

The only problem is caused by robsts' notation. He calls 360 / 2pi radian. This is why his formula is radius / radian

It looks as if he is intentionally reversing things. We all know a circular arc is the radius times the angle in radians and not their quotient. We also know that radians are equal to 2π times θ/360 and not the reverse. I hope any freshmen passing by here are ignoring this gibberish.

[Robust]

Originally Posted by C1ay

It looks as if he is intentionally reversing things. We all know a circular arc is the radius times the angle in radians and not their quotient. We also know that radians are equal to 2π times θ/360 and not the reverse. I hope any freshmen passing by here are ignoring this gibberish.

First off, Clay, The title of this posting is "Degree Distance" - the distance between each angular degree on the circumference. It is readily found by either the formula radius/radian or, as Pythagoras might have it: pi/40.

[C1ay]

Originally Posted by Robust

First off, Clay, The title of this posting is "Degree Distance" - the distance between each angular degree on the circumference. It is readily found by either the formula radius/radian or, as Pythagoras might have it: pi/40.

So. The distance is still the radius times the angle in radians even if the angle is only one degree or radius*(2π/360) or even if you regroup it you have (radius*2π)/360.

And what is pi/40 supposed to be? That would be 4.5° increments so it is certainly not the distance of one degree.

[Robust]

Originally Posted by C1ay

So. The distance is still the radius times the angle in radians even if the angle is only one degree or radius*(2π/360) or even if you regroup it you have (radius*2π)/360.

And what is pi/40 supposed to be? That would be 4.5° increments so it is certainly not the distance of one degree.

Pi/40 gives the least possible distance between 2 adjacent angular degrees on the circumference. I derive the formula from the perfect ratios of Pythagoras.

"All things number and harmony." - Pythagoras

[Rincewind]

Originally Posted by Robust

Pi/40 gives the least possible distance between 2 adjacent angular degrees on the circumference. I derive the formula from the perfect ratios of Pythagoras.

"All things number and harmony." - Pythagoras

Eh? Are you saying that the least possible arclength subtended by an angle of 1° is 0.078539816339744830961566084581988? 0.078539816339744830961566084581988 what? Metres? Miles? Light years?

Why can't it be 0.05 µm?

[C1ay]

Originally Posted by Robust

Pi/40 gives the least possible distance between 2 adjacent angular degrees on the circumference. I derive the formula from the perfect ratios of Pythagoras.

"All things number and harmony." - Pythagoras

It's beginning to look like we have another candidate for the Strange Claims Forum.

[Robust]

Originally Posted by C1ay

It's beginning to look like we have another candidate for the Strange Claims Forum.

Why do you protest so, Clay? Are you contesting Pythagoras now? He's the one who gave the Western world it's system of mathematics. Pi/40 is derived from his perfect ratios. Are you saying that it does not define the least possible distance between 2 adjacent angular degrees on the circumference?

"All things number and harmony." - Pythagoras

[Rincewind]

Originally Posted by Robust

Are you contesting Pythagoras now?

No, just your interpretation of, and way of using, his theories.

Are you going to answer my queries regarding your "least possible distance between 2 adjacent angular degrees on the circumference," Robust?

[maddog]

What I marvel at here is how so many are speaking the same stuff back to each
other and then saying the other has it "wrong" or "backwards". Guys, the Greeks
had this figured out thousands of years ago ! Heheh...

maddog

[Robust]

Originally Posted by Rincewind

Eh? Are you saying that the least possible arclength subtended by an angle of 1° is 0.078539816339744830961566084581988? 0.078539816339744830961566084581988 what? Metres? Miles? Light years?

Why can't it be 0.05 µm?

Yes, that's what I'm saying (using the irrational pi); using the rational pi value of 256/81(earliest known) the distance would be 0.07901234567 ad infinitum. I hold to the latter, yet consider the finite of 3.1640625.