Religious Slavery

[catholiboy]

Originally Posted by Edella

Some think that Jesus would have a different view of slavery, but slavery is still approved of in the New Testament...
6:5 Servants, be obedient to them that are your masters according to the flesh, with fear and trembling, in singleness of your heart, as unto Christ; Ephesians 6:5 KJV

Let as many servants as are under the yoke count their own masters worthy of all honour, that the name of God and his doctrine be not blasphemed. 1 Tim.6:1 KJV

Which leads one to the question, of what sort are the masters described therein? Intellectual, material, or religious?

[Freddy]

Originally Posted by Southtown

Just in case you think I said God does not condone slavery, I said it was more like being employed than being (racially) inferior. They worked for livelyhood and to pay off debts (because it's the right thing to do.)

For more info see the Year of Jubilee (Biblical).

"...and the emancipation of all Hebrew indentured servants whose term of six years is unexpired or who refuse to leave their masters when such term of service has expired (Gen. 18:6)." -- Wikipedia, Jubilee (Biblical), pp. 5

This is what I found for Genesis 18:6 "Abraham hurried into the tent to Sarah, and said, 'Quickly make ready three measures of fine meal, knead it, and make cakes'."

Leviticus 25:44-46: "Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. You can will them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly." (NIV)

The above speaks about slaves from other people or nations.

Leviticus 25:48-53: "After that he is sold he may be redeemed again; one of his brethren may redeem him: Either his uncle, or his uncle's son, may redeem him, or any that is nigh of kin unto him of his family may redeem him; or if he be able, he may redeem himself. And he shall reckon with him that bought him from the year that he was sold to him unto the year of jubilee: and the price of his sale shall be according unto the number of years, according to the time of an hired servant shall it be with him."

The above speaks about slaves from their own people.

[LayDominican]

it is easy to sit here in the year 2006 and make remarks like the beqating or owning of slaves and killings and such things. That was how life was back in those days. It makes one wander what sins the twin cities were doing for God to destory them. Anyway, the use of the word "vile" is unfair. Think of the times and do not use judge them with our thinking of right and wrong...,†Lay†

[LayDominican]

SpikedBlood

I think it is unfair to use our standards when referring to actions done in the Old Testament. To use the word vile is wrong. The times were much different and the mode of living was much different. To look back and comment on what they did and use a word like vile is grossly unfair to those people. Just voicing my opinion....†Lay†

[cwes99_03]

As shown, many of you come to the theology thread asking for answers, but those that you find are often proposed by those who don't have a full understanding.

I have already posted an answer to this on Hypography.

A slave in ancient Isreal was much like South stated. He was however incorrect in his announcing that non-isrealites could not be slaves. They did make them slaves, on a regular basis. Those captured in war again the isrealites were made into slaves. This was considered just, because it spared their life.

Think of this, "I will spare your life, give you food, clothing, and a place to sleep. In return you will serve me as your master and I will treat you as a slave is prescribed to be treated according to my god, that is like a child, who needs constant oversight and discipline. Perhaps in time, your family will come to be like my family and we will live together."

There were strict guidlines for slavery. Furthermore, slaves during those times, particularly isrealite slaves, were not allowed to be kept indefinitely. Similarly land was to be returned to its original owner at the Jubilee (50th year) so that no one would be taking advantage of their fellow men, and each tribe would continue to have its inheritance.

If you want an answer to biblical questions, perhaps it is better to approach someone who has deeper understanding. Southtown is pretty good, but he occasionally makes mistakes, as we all do. I'd bet I've made a couple here myself in this very post.

Furthermore, Jesus used in his illustrations and parables, a description of a slave and master many times. Slaves being entrusted with money and the wicked slave burying it and not making something out of it. Likewise, true christians were constantly compared to slaves of God, and others as slaves to the world. Jesus understood slavery and put it in its proper place.

[Cedars]

Originally Posted by LayDominican

it is easy to sit here in the year 2006 and make remarks like the beqating or owning of slaves and killings and such things. That was how life was back in those days. It makes one wander what sins the twin cities were doing for God to destory them. Anyway, the use of the word "vile" is unfair. Think of the times and do not use judge them with our thinking of right and wrong...,†Lay†

Yes, people owned slaves. They also partook in multi-god worship yet there was no hinderance to issue, thou shall have no other gods before me. Can you explain to me, whilst god was tossing out the commandments, Thou Shalt Not Own People wasnt a priority?

[Edella]

Originally Posted by Cedars

Yes, people owned slaves. They also partook in multi-god worship yet there was no hinderance to issue, thou shall have no other gods before me. Can you explain to me, whilst god was tossing out the commandments, Thou Shalt Not Own People wasnt a priority?

I would love to hear an answer to this question!

[Dyothelite]

Originally Posted by awe1235

...could've fooled me.

...sayin', extend your pity to the mistaken.

Yeah sorryI was drunk. Just warning ya bout bein vague. yah get hammered in here if you can't back it up.

I edited my drunky post too.

[Southtown]

Originally Posted by Freddy

This is what I found for Genesis 18:6 "Abraham hurried into the tent to Sarah, and said, 'Quickly make ready three measures of fine meal, knead it, and make cakes'."

Sorry about that. I guess they were referring to Deuteronomy 15:12-18. Wikis are for correcting...

Originally Posted by Freddy

Leviticus 25:44-46: "Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. You can will them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly." (NIV)

The above speaks about slaves from other people or nations.

Leviticus 25:48-53: "After that he is sold he may be redeemed again; one of his brethren may redeem him: Either his uncle, or his uncle's son, may redeem him, or any that is nigh of kin unto him of his family may redeem him; or if he be able, he may redeem himself. And he shall reckon with him that bought him from the year that he was sold to him unto the year of jubilee: and the price of his sale shall be according unto the number of years, according to the time of an hired servant shall it be with him."

The above speaks about slaves from their own people.

Well I could argue for a better translation of the Hebrew, but you have a point. They treated foreigners differently. Those slaves were undoubtedly the result of warfare or slavetrades. What to do with those guys? Well purchasing people from slavetraders would be the humane thing to do, actually. In the case of warfare, slavery is of course preferable to death.[/speculation] Read the book of Ruth.

But keep in mind, Yahweh did attempt to police their behavior, even he did it rather leniently. In my mind, the difference between owning Israelites and owning foreigners prohpetically symbolized the dynamic relationship between the righteous (free) and the self-righteous (slaves to law), i.e. the whole Sabbatical Year/Jubilee debt-forgiveness thing.

[LayDominican]

When God wrote the 10 Commandments, he did not put in a Commandment to free the slaves. You will have to take that up with God when you see Him. I don't have all the answers